D. Do not allow smoking in the home. 97. Hepatitis B. C. Remind the patient that constipation is a common symptom of depression. The area is red, irritated, and there are small breaks in the skin from scratching. B. bilateral, occipital, or frontal tightness or fullness, with waves of aching pain. 56. D. AP chest diameter less than transverse chest diameter, decreased tactile fremitus, increased diaphragmatic excursion, hypo-resonance to percussion, productive cough. There is no tenderness, edema, or erythema of the scrotum and the scrotum does not transilluminate. A. miconazole (Monistat®) cream B. isotretinoin (Accutane®) C. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim®, Sulfatrim)) D. terconazole (Terazol®) vaginal cream. B. at 80 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. A. Osteoporosis B. Hypothyroidism C. Recent dietary excess and weight gain D. Lack of exercise, Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? The nurse practitioner examines a 6 year old who has had sore throat and fever for less than 24 hours. A 19 year old sexually active female is being counseled by the nurse practitioner about contraception. Different lesions run parallel to each other in a Christmas tree pattern. She does not know when her last menstrual period was nor does she know when she might have conceived. A 72 year old man has chronic prostatitis. Symptoms present in the first 3 fingers of the affected hand. Painful constipation C. Cramping and abdominal pain D. Weight loss, 4. Which group listed below is considered high-risk A. Caucasians B. The nurse practitioner’s best response is A. B. 91. A 43 year old female patient complains of dull ache around both ankles after a day’s work as a cashier. NP In … D. removes barriers to prenatal and infant health care to narrow the gap between services provided to African-American and caucasian mothers and infants. HBV A. 10 AM and 12 Noon. D. avoid beginning any new exercises until after delivery. Encourage the use of nicotine replacement except in the presence of serious medical conditions. B. migraine prophylaxis. 135 pounds C. 140 pounds D. 145 pounds, 84. Smooth B. On physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes a scant nipple discharge, absence of a palpable mass, and absence of lymph node enlargement. Which drug class is associated with elevated serum lipid levels? B. bring the child to the clinic for evaluation. D. teach the patient and parent eye muscle exercises. B. trichomoniasis. A. I don’t need much.” He does not prepare food for himself at home, preferring to eat a noon meal at a neighborhood restaurant. Her mother reports that she has had these a few days and now her younger sister has them also. C. Decreased mobility and motor function. 42. A. ciprofloxacin (Cipro®) B. doxycycline (Vibramycin®) C. amoxicillin (Amoxil®) D. nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin®), All of the following are included in the differential diagnosis of hyperthyroidism EXCEPT: A. Plummer’s disease B. Multi-nodular goiter C. Hypersomnia D. Thyrotoxicosis, Chapter 37: Care of Patients with Pituitary Thyroid Parathyroid and Adrenal Disorders ( questions), NUR 231 Chapter 17 Nursing Diagnosis Review Questions, Handwashing & PPE Practice for NCLEX Questions, Free online plagiarism checker with percentage. Painful diarrhea B. A. C. Perform Ortolani and Barlow tests. B. both parents carry the gene. Mar 26, 2015 - APEA Diagnostic Online Testing Center is THE perfect practice solution for adult, adult-gero & family nurse practitioner students. “The 5-year survival rate is about 80% B. 146. 122. C. infertility D. cervical cancer. Which statement below about breastfeeding is NOT accurate? B. apply cool compresses and avoid touching the hordeolum. The lesions are well demarcated and are half moon-shaped. Gestational age for this patient can most accurately be assessed by: A. Naegele’s rule. 55. 139. The process by which a professional association confers recognition that a licensed professional has demonstrated mastery of a specialized body of knowledge and skills is termed: A. licensure. Improved glycemic control. When auscultating breath sounds in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the breath sounds are: a. vesicular with late inspiratory crackles in the dependent portions of the lungs and resonant on percussion 3. The nurse practitioner places the patient on a cardiac monitor and observes a normal sinus rhythm with elevated ST segments. “Your child should be saying a few words by this time. His blood pressure is 130 75 mmHg. A. helps to prevent tooth decay. C. bowel loops of varying width, with a grainy appearance. D. practicing safer sex. The mother of an 18 month old child is in the office. D. Begin medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera®). Sale. She is currently taking an oral contraceptive. B. defined as BMI 30% or greater. D. A mother with a plugged milk duct should not stop breastfeeding. B. reassure the patient that this lesion is not suspicious for pathology. The nurse practitioner is accurate when she tells the patient that a diaphragm A. with a flat spring type is easier to use. A. Anti-hypertensives B. Thiazide diuretics C. The “statins” D. Anti-coagulants, Which of the following is the best response to a woman who has just admitted she is a victim of spousal abuse? A 57 year old patient presents for an annual physical exam. History is negative for blunt trauma or fall. The nurse practitioner accurately tells her that a couple is not considered infertile until there has been unprotected intercourse without conception for what period of time? A. Flat and erect x-ray of the abdomen C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCU). D. while non-weight-bearing. D. better than a patient with 20/40, 125. What should the nurse practitioner do next A. D. milk and milk products. Of the following characteristics, which are most closely associated with risk for becoming an abusive parent? For this reason, prophylaxis is recommended. B. The content of these demonstration items will not necessarily match that of the specialty of your examination. B. protection of the testes during sports activities. Purpose: The purpose of this assignment is to identify the student’s potential weaknesses for the future national FNP certification exam and NP practice. B. Apea test bank Apea test bank. 118. 65. A daily 12-hour nitrate-free period is important to prevent tolerance. The nurse practitioner correctly diagnoses a 2nd degree burn injury which is described as A. full thickness, waxy or leathery, without vesicles. C. has a history of a neural tube defect in a previous pregnancy. 52. D. delaying the onset of sexual activity and using barrier methods of contraception. If you are at apea.com and seeing this message. 123. C. start walking daily and slowly build up distance. B. an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE-I), because African-Americans are typically high renin producers. The finding which is most consistent with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia is digital palpation of a prostate gland that is: A. enlarged, symmetrical, semi-firm, and non-tender. Which of the following is true about cognitive abilities in the elderly? C. an ophthalmic antibiotic ointment, eye patch, and ibuprophen. D. an ophthalmic antibiotic/steroid combination. Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoarthritis, 133. 75. A. Asymmetry of the gluteal folds and skin creases of the legs B. D. steadily worsening pain that interrupts sleep, is exacerbated by orthostatic changes, and may be preceded by nausea and vomiting. A patient is diagnosed with primary hypertension. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse practitioner? D. levothyroxine. A. Renal failure B. C. a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The conjunctiva is red and there is particulate matter along the upper eyelid. B. ovarian cancer. 121. “I must remain on medication for about 6 months since this is my first episode of depression. C. hemicranial pain that is accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. She does not need prophylaxis for any dental procedures. Which patient statement indicates a correct understanding of depression A. Why is it important that a post-menopausal woman with an intact uterus receive combined estrogen-progestin hormone replacement therapy rather than estrogen alone? 89. APEA offers three secure FNP and AGNP exam databases; the 3P Exam, Pre-Predictor Exam, and Post-Predictor Exam. D. She needs prophylaxis only for tooth extraction and deep dental procedures. Which characteristic would be UNUSUAL A. A 69 year old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a routine health check. Varicella 2. A low dose oral contraceptive C. An intrauterine device D. A diaphragm and spermicide. | Site and Development by. 76%. B. Which of the following patients most warrants screening for hypothyroidism A. C. a sudden rise in blood pressure due to overly efficient vasoconstriction. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the diagnosis of scoliosis in children A. Scoliosis is most apparent during the pre-adolescent growth spurt. C. 2 years earlier in girls. The Dubowitz Clinical Assessment is a: A. standardized scoring system for assessing gestational age of newborns. What is the most likely diagnosis? B. conduction problem in the right ear. D. A test of high sensitivity will fail to determine a finding in many patients. D. peaked T waves, tachycardia, and elevated CPK-MB and LDH, and cardiac Troponin I. Untreated infection with human papilloma virus (HPV-16) increases the female’s risk for: A. pelvic inflammatory disease. 131. A. Maternal alpha-fetoprotein level B. Folic acid 0.4 mg daily C. Rubella vaccine today D. Vitamin E 400 IU daily, 123. D. saliva and tears. During pregnancy, it is important to be physically active. The nurse practitioner correctly diagnoses iron deficiency anemia in a female patient whose lab report reveals A. an increased reticulocyte count. A. C. the problem will recur unless the patient remains beardless. APEA Predictor Exams Predict your success on board exams before you test — and identify your strengths and weaknesses Find out if you're ready D. a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). What intervention has the greatest impact on prevention of these disorders? C. are macrosomic. Untreated infection with human papilloma virus (HPV-16) increases the female’s risk for: A. pelvic inflammatory disease. B. contingent on certification. 8. It must clear on its own and may take 4 to 8 weeks.” C. “Since you and your daughter both have this, it is most probably a contagious viral rash. 84. 105. 69. 4. A 75 year old female complains that she awakens 3 to 4 times each night sensing bladder fullness, but is unable to “hold it” until she can get seated on the bathroom toilet. 150. Hepatitis B and varicella B. Poliomyelitis (IPV) and diphtheria-tetanus (Td) C. Influenza and measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) D. Pneumococcal and meningeococcal. C. the importance of balanced meals so that he can grow tall and strong. 77. C. “I do not need to be weaned off my anti-depressant medication.” D. “It’s OK if I skip my medicine every once in a while.”. C. heavy menstrual bleeding. A. “Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma has a better prognosis.” C. “With radiation and chemotherapy, there is almost a 100% cure rate.” D. “With surgical treatment, there is a 95% cure rate.”, A patient has developed a blood clot in his lower extremity and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin®) therapy. D. Offer nicotine replacement only to select populations of heavy smokers with a long history of smoking. A young adult female with postpartum depression lasting 2 weeks B. When examining a 5 year old, the nurse practitioner knows that this is an appropriate age to teach the child about: A. washing his hands before eating. What is the most common early sign of colchicine toxicity? “Take a daily aspirin because there are numerous studies which support that people who do not have heart symptoms benefit from one aspirin per day.” C. “Do not take a daily aspirin as there is insufficient evidence at this time for primary prevention of heart attack in people without heart symptoms.” D. “Do not take a daily aspirin until you reach 55 years-of-age.”, 38. C. heterosexual activity. D. poor glucose control for the last 1 to 3 months. Appropriate therapy for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is A. primarily by eradication of infection. Taken without progestin, estrogen is less effective in relieving vulvovaginal atrophy. 142. C. treatment by a pediatric psychiatrist. B. She is afebrile and denies nausea and vomiting. C. aimed at diminishing prostaglandin synthesis. D. nausea and vomiting. Beta cell destruction 2. Central obesity 4. C. used to establish minimal competence. B. low MSAFP is expected at 18 weeks gestation. The most accurate response by the nurse practitioner would be: A. C. cheilosis, a serious disease of the mouth and oropharynx. B. methylphenidate (Ritalin®) in conjunction with an antihistamine. 32. Which of the following patients requires radiological evaluation of a first incidence of urinary tract infection? She will need speech therapy.” D. “Your child should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist to assess her hearing.”, Which lymph node characteristics should raise concern if palpated by the examiner? It was a great review! A. Have the caregiver alternate between ibuprofen and acetaminophen for pain relief for 24 to 48 more hours. A. Strabismus is observed in a 13 month old child. For that we provide Free fnp practice exam 2021 real test. Anemia of chronic disease C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Folic acid deficiency anemia, 9. A. An 18 year old female applying for college admission presents to the health clinic because evidence of rubella vaccination is required for admission. B. scale developed for rating the newborn’s appearance, heart rate, reflexes, activity, and respirations. Obtain a thorough history and physical, and check serum cortisol and ACTH levels. :-) ALLOYRN MS, FNP. 45. B. dilated loops of bowel. B. poor glucose control in the last 2 weeks. “It is unlikely t hat I will have a recurrence of depression in my lifetime.” B. The nurse practitioner, suspecting pyloric stenosis, refers the infant for an upper GI series. 4 months B. C. sensorineural problem in the right ear. Have the patient chew an aspirin on the way to the hospital. A. D. diastolic murmurs. D. Use polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing in pregnancy. 2, 3 C. 1, 4 D. 1, 3, 4. B. not allowing anyone to touch his private parts without permission. D. increases the risk of sexually transmitted diseases. Today her pulse is 112 bpm and blood pressure is 130/92 mmHg. Which of the following is a microcytic hypochromic anemia? 16. The most important factor in development of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is: A. dietary intake of spicy foods. 117. Take practice tests – for the AANP exam, there’s a 50-question practice test you can do that is made up of their questions. 68. B. an ophthalmic steroid to reduce swelling, inflammation, and pain. B. process criteria. Which patient would profit most from screening for Type 2 diabetes A. Risk factors for elder abuse do NOT include: A. dependency. There is absence of purulence, erythema, and swelling. 1, 2, 3 B. An 87 year old patient was placed on low dose amlodipine (Norvasc) for treatment of hypertension and angina. C. sparse or absent hair. The infant 1 to 6 months-of-age with a diagnosis of developmental hip dysplasia is correctly treated with A. closed reduction of the hips. C. acute bacterial prostatitis. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with a diagnosis of beta-thalassemia major? The most likely diagnosis is A. transient monoarticular synovitis. Absence of 3 well-rounded daily meals B. You will then be able to practice answering questions in the format you will use at the exam site. All children should be screened annually after 5 years-of-age. 12-16 weeks gestation B. National certification expectations and options; Benefit of the APEA predictor to the predictor examination and all test banks for purposes of improving scores. D. early menopause (before 45 years- of- age). A document which declares in advance what type of medical care a person wants to be provided or withheld should he or she be unable to express his or her wishes is called? A. A. 74. A 7 year old girl with no true pubic hair C. A 12 year old boy with sparse, slightly pigmented pubic hair D. A 12 year old girl with breast buds. 148. Early screening for hyperlipidemia C. Vitamin supplementation D. Exercise. Which of the following scenarios in a 75 year old patient would be inappropriately managed in an outpatient setting (i. e. the patient should be referred for hospital admission)? This clinical presentation most likely reflects A. pernicious anemia, due to insufficient intrinsic factor. Among adolescents in the U.S., the greatest known risk factor for contracting hepatitis B is: A. homosexual activity. Long-range disease prevention programs are most likely to be successful if: A. only long-range goals are included. C. semen, vaginal secretions, and blood. D. a beta-adrenergic blocker (beta-blocker), demonstrated by research to be the most effective first-line treatment for all ethnic populations. She describes the burn as red, painful, dry, and without blistering. D. lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following parameters is reassuring to the nurse practitioner that the infant is receiving adequate nutrition? Skills training and motivational incentives have no effect on memory. 1. The nurse practitioner should: A. tell her that her serologic evidence demonstrates that she is immune to rubella and that she probably had the disease as a child. Radiographic evaluation of talipes equinovarus must be performed: A. while weight-bearing. D. normal saline drops only; eye-patching is not necessary. A. famotidine (Pepcid®) B. sucralfate (Carafate®) C. metoclopramide (Reglan®) D. omeprazole (Prilosec®), 134. B. edema and weeping ulcerations. 81. D. prevents infantile colic. Provide adequate nutrition C. Promote clearance of secretions D. Replace water-soluble vitamins. D. acne vulgaris. D. Phalen’s and Tinel’s signs are negative. D. gastroesophageal reflux (GERD), 126. D. A 29-year-old with untreated Cushing’s disease. 82. A. Palpitations B. Nausea C. Diarrhea D. Headache. B. D. alcohol and designer drug use. B. certified. D. Risk of breast cancer is increased for women using unopposed estrogen. A 3 year old child is brought to the health clinic. 19. 145. Blood pressure readings for the previous 3 months have been 154/100, 148/102, 158/104. D. a right to die statement. A young child is suspected of having pediculosis. C. mustard greens and collard greens. A young female reports onset of right flank pain 2 days ago that is now severe. Then choose the QBank that correlates to your knowledge deficits. The nurse practitioner should encourage her pregnant patient who has a very sedentary life style to: A. begin high impact aerobics class as soon as possible. A. Every reading is between 100 and 140 mg/dL (5.6-7.8 mmol/L). B. measuring serum chorionic gonadotropin level. A. alpha-adrenergic antagonists B. Anti-androgen agents C. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) D. Sulfonamides. 103. The most appropriate medication for treatment of exercise-induced asthma is a(n): A. inhaled corticosteroid. Iron deficiency anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Anemia of chronic disease, 100. APEA has developed predictive tests to assess exam readiness for FNP and AGNP certification. D. Ultrasonography. A usually very healthy 3 yo was diagnosed yesterday with acute otitis media. B. fecal-oral route. B. astrocytoma of the retina. Which lymph node characteristics should raise concern if palpated by the examiner? C. asymmetrical and nodular. D. Routine screening for scoliosis should begin at 10 to 12 years-of-age, with forward bending touching the toes, and unclothed examination of the spine. 128. The lesion is brown with regular borders. Never miss out this great chance to save big, just purchase what you prefer at APEA. Most children who have been sexually abused have: 90. What is the most likely diagnosis? Which of the following should the nurse practitioner encourage to decrease the chance of neural tube defect in the fetus? A. Tanner 1 B. Tanner 2 C. Tanner 3 D. Tanner 5. B. increases the incidence of urinary tract infection. After several years of study, to have approximately 19% of test takers fail is a fairly high hurdle. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) B. B. mental impairment. B. B. orthostatic hypotension. A mother with flat or inverted nipples may be able to breastfeed. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates her understanding of NFP? Advanced practice registered nurses who plan to practice in a hospital or other controlled setting are not required to have graduate education. Chronic sinusitis B. C. measurement of fundal height. D. universities providing graduate education. 135. The most reliable diagnostic indicator of gout is: A. monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in the synovial fluid. No one she has had contact with has similar symptoms. A. Anxiety B. Somatization C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Hyperthyroidism, 83. I took the first predictor exam - 57%. She reports improvement. Examination reveals asymmetrical swelling of his tonsils. Hypertension C. Common migraine headache D. Smoking. D. full thickness, with involvement of muscle and bone. Tension headache C. Cluster headache D. Classic migraine headache, 114. B. Which finding below would be unusual in a patient with diabetic retinopathy? She says, “I don’t remember ever getting that shot.” She has negative serologic evidence of rubella antibody. A 50 year old patient has abnormal vaginal bleeding with heavy periods and intermenstrual watery discharge with a small amount of blood. According to the 2007 American Heart Association’s guidelines for endocarditis prophylaxis, what would you advise this patient: A. The most likely diagnosis is: A. radial tunnel syndrome. What is the most likely diagnosis? B. history of significant trauma relative to the patient’s age. Oral conjugated estrogens B. B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim, Allorprin) prn acute attack. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of irritable bowel syndrome A. B. to have a skin examination every 2 years. D. measles can cause severe birth defects in unborn babies and the mother has now been exposed. Six weeks gestation is confirmed in a 23 year old, moderately overweight, patient. D. exercise and a low sodium diet. 86. 129. 10. All children should be screened every 5 years after 2 years-of-age. B. acute hepatitis B infection. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum A. Haemophilus influenza B. D. miconazole nitrate (Monistat®) ointment applied to the lesion 4 times a day for 10 days. The infant has at least 6 wet diapers per day. She reports ankle edema at the end of the day. B. ST changes, prominent Q wave, elevated CPK-MB and LDH, and cardiac troponin I. C. prolonged PR interval, bradycardia, and increased CPK-MB and LDH. 147. C. functional incontinence. Which of the following is a secondary cause of hyperlipidemia? Which of the following is the most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis A. The nurse practitioner knows that A. a high potency cortisone preparation applied to the face will shorten the duration of the eczema flare-up. D. iron deficiency anemia, steroid abuse, and bradycardia. D. new onset Type 2 diabetes mellitus. D. gonorrhea. C. certification. 63. There is point tenderness along the lateral aspect of the elbow and painful passive flexion and extension. D. A mother with a plugged milk duct should not stop breastfeeding. An example of primary prevention is: A. routine immunizations for healthy children or adults. A 35 year old female with a history of mitral valve prolapse is scheduled for routine dental cleaning. When counseling a woman who is breastfeeding her 6 month old infant, the nurse practitioner should recommend a caloric intake over her pre-pregnancy requirements of A. B. Scoliosis may be evidenced by unequal shoulder, scapula, or iliac crest height with the child standing. What should the nurse practitioner recommend A. Expires:Jul 21, 2020 Click to Save SALE. B. injecting drug use. D. meclizine (Antivert, Bonine). B. a high potency cortisone cream on the face will only be helpful if used in conjunction with a hydrating lotion. A 30 year old female with unintended weight loss B. Prevent intestinal obstruction B. A. B. long-acting xanthine. B. menopausal vasomotor instability. A patient recovering from a recent stroke is starting anticoagulant therapy. Which of the following is the current recommendation for cholesterol screening in children A. 2 to 3 days C. 2 to 3 weeks D. 2 to 3 months. A. D. exquisitely tender with absence of median sulcus. The NP is discussing contraception options to be used during lactation with a 24 year old pregnant patient. What is the recommendation of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Resources regarding nicotine replacement therapy A. A. apply cool water compresses and administer ibuprofen. An 8 year old presents to the health clinic with history of acute onset severe sore throat and respiratory rate 34minute in the last 30 minutes. C. Public health department nurses are required to use consent forms but this is optional for practitioners in the private sector. 76. A 2 week old infant presents with projectile vomiting, weight loss, dehydration, constipation, and history of insatiable appetite. A 19 year old female reports that she is having “panic attacks”. D. alcohol and licorice. C. start walking daily and slowly build up distance. A test of high specificity tends to produce false positive results. A. 96. According to the American Diabetes Association, what is the lowest fasting plasma glucose level which warrants a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus if confirmed on a subsequent day? A. Enlarged and mobile B. “The anti-fungal cream you have been using is not strong enough. A. Xerosis B. Cherry angiomas and senile purpura C. Senile keratoses and senile lentigines D. Dermatophytoses. 11. 92. 1. 11. What side effects might be expected from taking amolodipine? Multiple sclerosis (MS) B. Parkinson’s disease C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Huntington’s chorea, 53. B. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). 500 kcal per day. With Apea.com Discount Codes, Enjoy Great Savings. D. a topical steroid cream. The hallmark of neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen disease) present in almost 100% of patients is A. acoustic neuroma. The patient asks whether he would benefit from taking aspirin 325 mg every day to prevent an MI. 35. Sensitivity relates to the reliability of a technique to give a positive result when the finding is present. Chronic asthmatic bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Chronic obstructive lung disease D. Chronic bronchitis. 200 kcal per day. treat with a topical anti-fungal cream B. Eczema? B. subluxation of the proximal radial head. C. apply cooking oil. A patient presents with dehydration, hypotension, and fever. Which of the following is true concerning sensitivity and specificity A. C. 1 parent has the disease. B. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The patient suffers a bad outcome. A. Start iron replacement therapy. A good sunscreen lotion or sunblock may contain all of the following components. The nurse practitioner diagnoses eczema on the cheeks of a 2 year old female. The intervention known to be most effective in the treatment of severe depression, with or without psychosis, is: A. psychotherapy. Because of this information, it is essential for the nurse practitioner to teach him about? 132. A. Coarctation of the aorta should be suspected in newborns or infants who exhibit any of the following EXCEPT A. upper extremity hypertension. Patients with HIV are at increased risk for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) which is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. What information would best help the parent who is concerned about a school-age child’s eating habits A. 3500 B. C. insufficient dietary iron. Family Nurse Practitioner Exam Questions. 106. “Abstinence is required during the 14th through 16th day of my cycle.” B. Which of the following is NOT associated with this diagnosis? C. occurrence-based policy. C. diminished lower extremity pulses. The physiological explanation for syncope is: A. accelerated venous return and increased stroke volume resulting in deactivation of the parasympathetic nervous system. Then choose the QBank that correlates to your knowledge deficits. Betty strongly encouraged me to not try and test again until I could score a 70% or greater on a Predictor Exam. A 73 year old patient presents with a very sore, glossy, smooth, beefy-red tongue. A 46 year old female has hypertension and is well managed with propanolol (Inderal). The questions … D. nutrition. Symptoms are exacerbated by a high-fat meal. D. leukotriene receptor antagonist. B. ulnar collateral ligament sprain. These are A. due to congenital valve deformities. A. Suggest the addition of a daily hypertonic enema. Studied again, another one, 81%. B. late menarche (after 15 years- of- age). She is 5 feet 7 inches tall. A young couple is being seen by the nurse practitioner for preconception counseling. Age B. Common migraine headache B. APEA Exam Questions & Answers APEA 3P (physical, pathophysiology, and pharmacology) exam emphasizes the importance of the’ ability to evaluate health and illness experiences of clients, to assess an individual’s response to pharmacologic management of illness, and have the basic understanding of pharmacologic principles, which includes the cellular response level. C. hypotonia that persists into adulthood, and recurrent joint dislocation. . 118. Which APRN is the exception to the graduate level preparation requirement for certification for advanced practice registered nurses? “A weight gain of approximately 25 pounds is ideal for mother and baby.” C. “It doesn’t matter how much weight you gain or lose as long as you eat a well-balanced diet.” D. “Just try to limit your weight gain as much as you comfortably are able.”, When, in childhood, do the frontal sinuses usually present?